Now maybe someone can clarify a few things.
It was confirmed back in January that the Dark Wizard was in fact going to be Pallando. This confuses me, both for "why would you just blurt out the answer to a mystery so early" and the legality of this creative decision.
It was my understanding that RoP only has access to the rights to the Lord of the Rings. Alatar and Pallando weren't the names for the Blue Wizards there, which is why Jackson never outright named them when they're referenced in the Hobbit. So what grounds does RoP have?
It gets especially muddy when it comes to First Age references. They don't have access to the Silmarillion, but they can use things like the Darkening of Valinor, Feanor's hammer, Morgoth's crown, and make a whole apocryphal story about a Silmaril? It's confusing.
Where exactly is the line drawn? In a better-written story, the writers might have used Fëanor as a foil to Sauron and Celebrimbor, referring to why they seek to perfect their craftsmanship. But I don't think the show even mentions he made the Silmarils, or that he is Celebrimbor's grandfather. He just gets boiled down to "great smith with a hammer". The show can't show us the events as they happened, but is even a reference to their kinship to much?
I just don't get the point of using these objects if you can't even truly expand upon their significance.